Question 1
Multiple Choice
When describing the drugs used as treatment for clients with ulcerative colitis to a group of nursing students, the instructor discusses aspirin-like compounds with anti-inflammatory properties. Which of the following would the instructor most likely include?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A,E
Rationale
Mesalamine (Asacol) is a primary treatment option for ulcerative colitis due to its aspirin-like properties that reduce inflammation in the colon, promoting healing and symptom relief effectively.
B: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) Primarily acts as a stimulant laxative, facilitating bowel movements rather than providing anti-inflammatory benefits for ulcerative colitis, thus not aligning with the treatment focus discussed.
C: Magnesium oxide (Mag-Ox) Serves as a dietary supplement and does not possess anti-inflammatory properties relevant to ulcerative colitis treatment, making it an unsuitable option for this context.
D: Polyethylene glycol (MiraLAX) Functions as an osmotic laxative to relieve constipation, lacking the anti-inflammatory characteristics necessary for addressing the underlying issues in ulcerative colitis treatment.
E: Olsalazine (Dipentum) Shares similar anti-inflammatory effects as mesalamine, making it relevant for ulcerative colitis treatment; however, it was not the primary option presented in the discussion context.
Correct Answer: A,E
Rationale: Mesalamine (Asacol) is a primary treatment option for ulcerative colitis due to its aspirin-like properties that reduce inflammation in the colon, promoting healing and symptom relief effectively.
B: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) Primarily acts as a stimulant laxative, facilitating bowel movements rather than providing anti-inflammatory benefits for ulcerative colitis, thus not aligning with the treatment focus discussed.
C: Magnesium oxide (Mag-Ox) Serves as a dietary supplement and does not possess anti-inflammatory properties relevant to ulcerative colitis treatment, making it an unsuitable option for this context.
D: Polyethylene glycol (MiraLAX) Functions as an osmotic laxative to relieve constipation, lacking the anti-inflammatory characteristics necessary for addressing the underlying issues in ulcerative colitis treatment.
E: Olsalazine (Dipentum) Shares similar anti-inflammatory effects as mesalamine, making it relevant for ulcerative colitis treatment; however, it was not the primary option presented in the discussion context.
Question 2
Regular
A nurse is preparing to administer sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) to a client with inflammatory bowel disease. The nurse checks the clients medical record for a history of hypersensitivities, understanding that the drug should not be administered to a client with hypersensitivity to which of the following drugs?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: D
Rationale
Sulfasalazine should not be administered to a client with hypersensitivity to sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim) due to the structural similarities, which can provoke an allergic reaction or adverse effects.
A: Enalapril (Vasotec) This medication belongs to a different class of drugs, specifically ACE inhibitors, and does not share a common chemical structure with sulfasalazine.
B: Doxycycline (Vibramycin) As a tetracycline antibiotic, doxycycline does not have a related chemical composition to sulfasalazine, thereby avoiding hypersensitivity concerns linked to sulfa drugs.
C: Azithromycin (Zithromax) This macrolide antibiotic does not contain sulfa components and therefore does not pose a risk of hypersensitivity in patients who are allergic to sulfonamides.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sulfasalazine should not be administered to a client with hypersensitivity to sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim) due to the structural similarities, which can provoke an allergic reaction or adverse effects.
A: Enalapril (Vasotec) This medication belongs to a different class of drugs, specifically ACE inhibitors, and does not share a common chemical structure with sulfasalazine.
B: Doxycycline (Vibramycin) As a tetracycline antibiotic, doxycycline does not have a related chemical composition to sulfasalazine, thereby avoiding hypersensitivity concerns linked to sulfa drugs.
C: Azithromycin (Zithromax) This macrolide antibiotic does not contain sulfa components and therefore does not pose a risk of hypersensitivity in patients who are allergic to sulfonamides.
Question 3
Multiple Choice
A nurse educating a client on balsalazide (Colazal) should advise the client about possible adverse reactions not involving the gastrointestinal tract. Which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: B,C
Rationale
B, C: Headache and fever are potential adverse reactions associated with balsalazide that do not involve the gastrointestinal tract. These symptoms indicate possible systemic effects of the medication and should be monitored closely during treatment.
A: Alopecia does not commonly occur with balsalazide use, making it a less relevant concern regarding non-gastrointestinal adverse reactions.
D: Tremors are not typically linked to balsalazide, which makes their inclusion in the teaching plan unnecessary.
E: Bone pain is not a recognized adverse effect of balsalazide, thus it should not be prioritized in client education.
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: B, C: Headache and fever are potential adverse reactions associated with balsalazide that do not involve the gastrointestinal tract. These symptoms indicate possible systemic effects of the medication and should be monitored closely during treatment.
A: Alopecia does not commonly occur with balsalazide use, making it a less relevant concern regarding non-gastrointestinal adverse reactions.
D: Tremors are not typically linked to balsalazide, which makes their inclusion in the teaching plan unnecessary.
E: Bone pain is not a recognized adverse effect of balsalazide, thus it should not be prioritized in client education.
Question 4
Multiple Choice
Which of the following drugs used to manage lower gastrointestinal disorders increase the risk of bleeding when administered to clients taking warfarin (Coumadin)?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A,E
Rationale
Mesalamine (Asacol) and Olsalazine (Dipentum) increase the risk of bleeding when administered to clients taking warfarin due to their potential effects on platelet aggregation and gastrointestinal mucosal integrity.
B: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) Primarily acts as a stimulant laxative, lacking significant interactions with anticoagulants and doesn't influence bleeding risks associated with warfarin therapy effectively.
C: Psyllium (Metamucil) Functions mainly as a bulk-forming laxative, which does not alter coagulation pathways or enhance bleeding risks when combined with warfarin medication.
D: Polyethylene glycol (MiraLAX) Works as an osmotic laxative and does not affect platelet function or coagulation parameters, thus maintaining a safe profile for patients on warfarin.
Correct Answer: A,E
Rationale: Mesalamine (Asacol) and Olsalazine (Dipentum) increase the risk of bleeding when administered to clients taking warfarin due to their potential effects on platelet aggregation and gastrointestinal mucosal integrity.
B: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) Primarily acts as a stimulant laxative, lacking significant interactions with anticoagulants and doesn't influence bleeding risks associated with warfarin therapy effectively.
C: Psyllium (Metamucil) Functions mainly as a bulk-forming laxative, which does not alter coagulation pathways or enhance bleeding risks when combined with warfarin medication.
D: Polyethylene glycol (MiraLAX) Works as an osmotic laxative and does not affect platelet function or coagulation parameters, thus maintaining a safe profile for patients on warfarin.
Question 5
Multiple Choice
A client is using chamomile tea as a remedy to treat gastrointestinal upset. When discussing the use of this herb, the nurse would alert the client that contact dermatitis is a possibility if the client has a hypersensitivity to which of the following plants?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A,C,E
Rationale
Contact dermatitis is a possibility if the client has a hypersensitivity to ragweed, asters, or chrysanthemums. These plants belong to the same family as chamomile, increasing the risk of allergic reactions.
B: Fox glove. This plant is not related to chamomile and does not share similar allergenic properties, thus posing no risk of contact dermatitis in this context.
D: Lavender. While lavender can cause allergic reactions, it is not closely related to chamomile, making it less likely to trigger contact dermatitis in susceptible individuals.
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: Contact dermatitis is a possibility if the client has a hypersensitivity to ragweed, asters, or chrysanthemums. These plants belong to the same family as chamomile, increasing the risk of allergic reactions.
B: Fox glove. This plant is not related to chamomile and does not share similar allergenic properties, thus posing no risk of contact dermatitis in this context.
D: Lavender. While lavender can cause allergic reactions, it is not closely related to chamomile, making it less likely to trigger contact dermatitis in susceptible individuals.
Question 6
Multiple Choice
A nursing student is preparing a presentation on antidiarrheal drugs. Which of the following drugs would the student include as being chemically related to opioid drugs and used to treat diarrhea by decreasing intestinal peristalsis?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: B,D
Rationale
Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) is chemically related to opioid drugs and effectively treats diarrhea by reducing intestinal peristalsis, thereby slowing down bowel movements and allowing for increased water absorption.
A: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) This drug functions as a stimulant laxative, promoting bowel movements rather than decreasing peristalsis, thus making it unsuitable for treating diarrhea.
C: Alosetron (Lotronex) Designed for specific bowel conditions, this drug's mechanism does not primarily involve reducing intestinal peristalsis, which is essential for treating diarrhea effectively.
E: Bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) While it can relieve diarrhea symptoms, it does not share a chemical relationship with opioids nor primarily decrease intestinal peristalsis as required for effective treatment.
Correct Answer: B,D
Rationale: Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) is chemically related to opioid drugs and effectively treats diarrhea by reducing intestinal peristalsis, thereby slowing down bowel movements and allowing for increased water absorption.
A: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) This drug functions as a stimulant laxative, promoting bowel movements rather than decreasing peristalsis, thus making it unsuitable for treating diarrhea.
C: Alosetron (Lotronex) Designed for specific bowel conditions, this drug's mechanism does not primarily involve reducing intestinal peristalsis, which is essential for treating diarrhea effectively.
E: Bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) While it can relieve diarrhea symptoms, it does not share a chemical relationship with opioids nor primarily decrease intestinal peristalsis as required for effective treatment.
Question 7
Multiple Choice
A client is prescribed diphenoxylate. The nurse informs the client that he may experience which of the following effects?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A,D,E
Rationale
Diphenoxylate may cause euphoric effects, sedative effects, and slowed gastrointestinal effects. This medication acts on the gut, diminishing motility and enhancing absorption, which can lead to a sense of euphoria and sedation in some patients.
B: Analgesic effects Not designed for pain relief, diphenoxylate primarily targets gastrointestinal symptoms, thus lacking the properties necessary to produce analgesic effects commonly associated with pain medications.
C: Anti-inflammatory effects Diphenoxylate does not possess anti-inflammatory properties; its mechanism focuses solely on reducing bowel movement frequency rather than addressing inflammation within the gastrointestinal tract.
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: Diphenoxylate may cause euphoric effects, sedative effects, and slowed gastrointestinal effects. This medication acts on the gut, diminishing motility and enhancing absorption, which can lead to a sense of euphoria and sedation in some patients.
B: Analgesic effects Not designed for pain relief, diphenoxylate primarily targets gastrointestinal symptoms, thus lacking the properties necessary to produce analgesic effects commonly associated with pain medications.
C: Anti-inflammatory effects Diphenoxylate does not possess anti-inflammatory properties; its mechanism focuses solely on reducing bowel movement frequency rather than addressing inflammation within the gastrointestinal tract.
Question 8
Multiple Choice
Antidiarrheals are contraindicated in clients whose diarrhea is associated with which of the following organisms that can harm the intestinal mucosa?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: B,C,E
Rationale
Antidiarrheals are contraindicated in clients whose diarrhea is associated with Shigella, Salmonella, or Escherichia coli as these pathogens can cause significant intestinal mucosal damage.
B: Shigella This organism produces toxins that can severely injure the intestinal lining, leading to complications that antidiarrheal medications may exacerbate.
C: Salmonella Similar to Shigella, Salmonella can cause severe inflammation and damage to the intestinal mucosa, making antidiarrheals inappropriate for managing its associated diarrhea.
E: Escherichia coli Certain strains of E. coli can produce harmful toxins that damage the intestinal lining, necessitating careful management that avoids antidiarrheal use to prevent further complications.
A: Staphylococcus While Staphylococcus can cause foodborne illness, it typically does not result in intestinal mucosal damage that would contraindicate antidiarrheal treatment.
D: Streptococcus This organism is not commonly associated with diarrhea that harms the intestinal mucosa, making antidiarrheal medications generally acceptable in such cases.
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: Antidiarrheals are contraindicated in clients whose diarrhea is associated with Shigella, Salmonella, or Escherichia coli as these pathogens can cause significant intestinal mucosal damage.
B: Shigella This organism produces toxins that can severely injure the intestinal lining, leading to complications that antidiarrheal medications may exacerbate.
C: Salmonella Similar to Shigella, Salmonella can cause severe inflammation and damage to the intestinal mucosa, making antidiarrheals inappropriate for managing its associated diarrhea.
E: Escherichia coli Certain strains of E. coli can produce harmful toxins that damage the intestinal lining, necessitating careful management that avoids antidiarrheal use to prevent further complications.
A: Staphylococcus While Staphylococcus can cause foodborne illness, it typically does not result in intestinal mucosal damage that would contraindicate antidiarrheal treatment.
D: Streptococcus This organism is not commonly associated with diarrhea that harms the intestinal mucosa, making antidiarrheal medications generally acceptable in such cases.
Question 9
Multiple Choice
A client is prescribed an antidiarrheal drug. The nurse reviews the client's medical record for possible contraindications for use. Which of the following would alert the nurse to a possible contraindication?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A,C,E
Rationale
A: Pseudomembranous colitis. This condition is characterized by inflammation of the colon, often due to antibiotic use, and using antidiarrheal drugs can exacerbate this potentially serious gastrointestinal complication, warranting caution.
B: Type 1 diabetes. This metabolic disorder does not directly interfere with the use of antidiarrheal medications and is not typically associated with contraindications for these drugs.
C: Abdominal pain of unknown origin. While this symptom might raise concerns, it does not specifically indicate a contraindication for antidiarrheal medications, as the underlying cause needs further investigation.
D: Liver disease. Although liver impairment may necessitate caution with many medications, it does not specifically contraindicate the use of antidiarrheal drugs in a straightforward manner.
E: Obstructive jaundice. This condition can signify a blockage in the bile duct, and administering antidiarrheal medications may worsen symptoms or mask underlying issues, thus posing significant risk.
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: A: Pseudomembranous colitis. This condition is characterized by inflammation of the colon, often due to antibiotic use, and using antidiarrheal drugs can exacerbate this potentially serious gastrointestinal complication, warranting caution.
B: Type 1 diabetes. This metabolic disorder does not directly interfere with the use of antidiarrheal medications and is not typically associated with contraindications for these drugs.
C: Abdominal pain of unknown origin. While this symptom might raise concerns, it does not specifically indicate a contraindication for antidiarrheal medications, as the underlying cause needs further investigation.
D: Liver disease. Although liver impairment may necessitate caution with many medications, it does not specifically contraindicate the use of antidiarrheal drugs in a straightforward manner.
E: Obstructive jaundice. This condition can signify a blockage in the bile duct, and administering antidiarrheal medications may worsen symptoms or mask underlying issues, thus posing significant risk.
Question 10
Multiple Choice
After administering diphenoxylate to a client, the nurse would assess the client closely for increased CNS depression if the client was also receiving which medication?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A,D,E
Rationale
Diphenoxylate can cause CNS depression, so close assessment is vital when combined with Zolpidem, Temazepam, or Fexofenadine, which also influence the central nervous system, heightening the risk of respiratory distress or sedation.
A: Fexofenadine (Allegra) Antihistamines like Fexofenadine typically have less sedative effects compared to other CNS-active medications, making their interaction with diphenoxylate less concerning for depression.
B: Glyburide (DiaBeta) Glyburide primarily affects glucose levels and does not significantly interact with CNS function, thus presenting minimal risk for enhancing CNS depression when administered with diphenoxylate.
C: Sucralfate (Carafate) As a medication primarily used to treat ulcers, Sucralfate does not exert effects on the central nervous system, therefore it does not contribute to potential CNS depression with diphenoxylate.
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: Diphenoxylate can cause CNS depression, so close assessment is vital when combined with Zolpidem, Temazepam, or Fexofenadine, which also influence the central nervous system, heightening the risk of respiratory distress or sedation.
A: Fexofenadine (Allegra) Antihistamines like Fexofenadine typically have less sedative effects compared to other CNS-active medications, making their interaction with diphenoxylate less concerning for depression.
B: Glyburide (DiaBeta) Glyburide primarily affects glucose levels and does not significantly interact with CNS function, thus presenting minimal risk for enhancing CNS depression when administered with diphenoxylate.
C: Sucralfate (Carafate) As a medication primarily used to treat ulcers, Sucralfate does not exert effects on the central nervous system, therefore it does not contribute to potential CNS depression with diphenoxylate.
Question 11
Multiple Choice
A client's history reveals that the client is experiencing intestinal gas. Which of the following would the nurse expect the primary health care provider to prescribe?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A,E
Rationale
Simethicone (Mylicon) would be expected to be prescribed for the client's intestinal gas. This medication works by reducing surface tension, allowing gas bubbles in the gut to coalesce and be eliminated more easily.
B: Omeprazole (Prilosec) Primarily targets stomach acid reduction, serving to treat conditions like GERD, not specifically addressing intestinal gas issues.
C: Ranitidine (Zantac) Functions as an acid reducer, helping with stomach-related ailments, but does not alleviate gas symptoms directly.
D: Odansetron (Zofran) Primarily used to prevent nausea and vomiting, it does not address the underlying causes of intestinal gas.
Correct Answer: A,E
Rationale: Simethicone (Mylicon) would be expected to be prescribed for the client's intestinal gas. This medication works by reducing surface tension, allowing gas bubbles in the gut to coalesce and be eliminated more easily.
B: Omeprazole (Prilosec) Primarily targets stomach acid reduction, serving to treat conditions like GERD, not specifically addressing intestinal gas issues.
C: Ranitidine (Zantac) Functions as an acid reducer, helping with stomach-related ailments, but does not alleviate gas symptoms directly.
D: Odansetron (Zofran) Primarily used to prevent nausea and vomiting, it does not address the underlying causes of intestinal gas.
Question 12
Multiple Choice
The nurse is preparing to administer a laxative that adds bulk and water to the contents of the intestines, thereby stimulating intestinal peristalsis. Which of the following would the nurse be likely to administer?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: B,C
Rationale
Methylcellulose (Citrucel) and Polycarbophil (FiberCon) are likely to be administered as they are bulk-forming laxatives that increase intestinal bulk and water, stimulating peristalsis effectively.
A: Docusate (Colace) This is a stool softener that primarily facilitates the passage of stool but does not significantly increase bulk or stimulate peristalsis.
D: Bisacodyl (Docusate) This is a stimulant laxative that promotes bowel movements through irritation rather than increasing bulk, hence it does not align with the context.
E: Lactulose (Chronulac) This is an osmotic laxative that draws water into the intestines, but it does not function primarily through bulk formation to stimulate peristalsis.
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: Methylcellulose (Citrucel) and Polycarbophil (FiberCon) are likely to be administered as they are bulk-forming laxatives that increase intestinal bulk and water, stimulating peristalsis effectively.
A: Docusate (Colace) This is a stool softener that primarily facilitates the passage of stool but does not significantly increase bulk or stimulate peristalsis.
D: Bisacodyl (Docusate) This is a stimulant laxative that promotes bowel movements through irritation rather than increasing bulk, hence it does not align with the context.
E: Lactulose (Chronulac) This is an osmotic laxative that draws water into the intestines, but it does not function primarily through bulk formation to stimulate peristalsis.
Question 13
Regular
After teaching a group of nursing students about laxatives, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which drug as producing the laxative effect by promoting water retention in the fecal mass and softening the stool?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A
Rationale
Docusate sodium (Colace) promotes water retention in the fecal mass, which softens the stool and facilitates easier bowel movements, making it an effective laxative for constipation relief.
B: Methylcellulose (Citrucel) primarily acts as a bulk-forming laxative, increasing stool bulk but not specifically promoting water retention in the fecal mass to soften the stool.
C: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) functions as a stimulant laxative, inducing bowel contractions rather than enhancing water retention in the stool, which is essential for achieving a softer consistency.
D: Lactulose (Chronulac) works by drawing water into the colon through osmosis, but it is not the same as docusate sodium in terms of directly softening the stool.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Docusate sodium (Colace) promotes water retention in the fecal mass, which softens the stool and facilitates easier bowel movements, making it an effective laxative for constipation relief.
B: Methylcellulose (Citrucel) primarily acts as a bulk-forming laxative, increasing stool bulk but not specifically promoting water retention in the fecal mass to soften the stool.
C: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) functions as a stimulant laxative, inducing bowel contractions rather than enhancing water retention in the stool, which is essential for achieving a softer consistency.
D: Lactulose (Chronulac) works by drawing water into the colon through osmosis, but it is not the same as docusate sodium in terms of directly softening the stool.
Question 14
Multiple Choice
The nurse is reviewing a client's history and finds that the client uses a laxative that produces its effects by dehydrating local tissues, which causes irritation and increased peristalsis, with consequent evacuation of the fecal mass. Which of the following would this be?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: C,E
Rationale
C: Glycerin (Fleet Babylax) Glycerin acts as an osmotic laxative, drawing water into the intestines, dehydrating local tissues and leading to irritation and enhanced peristalsis, facilitating fecal evacuation.
A: Docusate sodium (Colace) Docusate sodium is a stool softener that primarily aids in moisture absorption into the stool, lacking the dehydrating and irritative characteristics necessary for increased peristalsis.
B: Methylcellulose (Citrucel) Methylcellulose is a bulk-forming laxative that absorbs water to create a gel-like substance, promoting stool passage without causing local tissue dehydration or irritation.
D: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that increases intestinal motility but does not specifically dehydrate local tissues, making it ineffective in producing the described mechanism of action.
E: Lactulose (Chronulac) Lactulose is an osmotic laxative that works by drawing water into the colon; however, it does not primarily act by dehydrating local tissues to stimulate peristalsis.
Correct Answer: C,E
Rationale: C: Glycerin (Fleet Babylax) Glycerin acts as an osmotic laxative, drawing water into the intestines, dehydrating local tissues and leading to irritation and enhanced peristalsis, facilitating fecal evacuation.
A: Docusate sodium (Colace) Docusate sodium is a stool softener that primarily aids in moisture absorption into the stool, lacking the dehydrating and irritative characteristics necessary for increased peristalsis.
B: Methylcellulose (Citrucel) Methylcellulose is a bulk-forming laxative that absorbs water to create a gel-like substance, promoting stool passage without causing local tissue dehydration or irritation.
D: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that increases intestinal motility but does not specifically dehydrate local tissues, making it ineffective in producing the described mechanism of action.
E: Lactulose (Chronulac) Lactulose is an osmotic laxative that works by drawing water into the colon; however, it does not primarily act by dehydrating local tissues to stimulate peristalsis.
Question 15
Multiple Choice
Which of the following produce their laxative effect by direct action on the intestine to increase peristalsis?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A,D
Rationale
Sennosides (Senokot) and Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) produce their laxative effect by direct action on the intestine to increase peristalsis, stimulating bowel movements effectively.
A: Sennosides (Senokot) Directly stimulates intestinal motility, enhancing peristalsis and promoting bowel movements through its action on the colonic mucosa.
D: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) Acts on the intestinal nerve plexus, increasing peristalsis and accelerating transit time through the gastrointestinal tract.
B: Methylcellulose (Citrucel) Functions as a bulk-forming laxative, absorbing water to create a gel-like substance that facilitates stool passage without directly stimulating peristalsis.
C: Glycerin (Fleet Babylax) Primarily acts as an osmotic agent, drawing moisture into the intestines to soften stool rather than directly increasing intestinal motility.
E: Lactulose (Chronulac) Operates as an osmotic laxative, fermenting in the colon to produce gas and acid, which draw water into the bowel without directly stimulating peristalsis.
Correct Answer: A,D
Rationale: Sennosides (Senokot) and Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) produce their laxative effect by direct action on the intestine to increase peristalsis, stimulating bowel movements effectively.
A: Sennosides (Senokot) Directly stimulates intestinal motility, enhancing peristalsis and promoting bowel movements through its action on the colonic mucosa.
D: Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) Acts on the intestinal nerve plexus, increasing peristalsis and accelerating transit time through the gastrointestinal tract.
B: Methylcellulose (Citrucel) Functions as a bulk-forming laxative, absorbing water to create a gel-like substance that facilitates stool passage without directly stimulating peristalsis.
C: Glycerin (Fleet Babylax) Primarily acts as an osmotic agent, drawing moisture into the intestines to soften stool rather than directly increasing intestinal motility.
E: Lactulose (Chronulac) Operates as an osmotic laxative, fermenting in the colon to produce gas and acid, which draw water into the bowel without directly stimulating peristalsis.
Question 16
Multiple Choice
When reviewing a client's history, a nurse determines that the use of laxatives would be contraindicated if the client has a history of which of the following?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: C,D,E
Rationale
Laxatives are contraindicated in clients with a history of acute appendicitis, intestinal obstruction, or fecal impaction due to the risk of exacerbating these conditions and causing severe complications.
A: Chronic hepatitis. This condition does not directly impact the gastrointestinal motility or obstruction risks associated with laxative use.
B: Type 1 diabetes. Although diabetes can affect bowel function, it does not inherently contraindicate laxative use unless complications arise.
Correct Answer: C,D,E
Rationale: Laxatives are contraindicated in clients with a history of acute appendicitis, intestinal obstruction, or fecal impaction due to the risk of exacerbating these conditions and causing severe complications.
A: Chronic hepatitis. This condition does not directly impact the gastrointestinal motility or obstruction risks associated with laxative use.
B: Type 1 diabetes. Although diabetes can affect bowel function, it does not inherently contraindicate laxative use unless complications arise.
Question 17
Multiple Choice
A nurse would most likely expect a primary health care provider to prescribe psyllium (Metamucil) to a client who is experiencing constipation related to which drug?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A,B,D,E
Rationale
Psyllium (Metamucil) would most likely be prescribed to a client experiencing constipation related to spironolactone (Aldactone).
Spironolactone can cause electrolyte imbalances, leading to constipation. Psyllium, as a fiber supplement, aids in increasing stool bulk and relieving constipation, making it a suitable choice in this scenario.
B: Clonidine (Catapres) Clonidine primarily affects blood pressure and does not typically contribute to constipation, making psyllium less relevant for managing side effects associated with this medication.
C: Enalapril (Vasotec) Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, does not commonly induce constipation. Therefore, psyllium's use would not be warranted for clients taking this medication.
D: Fexofenadine (Allegra) Fexofenadine, an antihistamine, is not associated with constipation as a side effect. Consequently, prescribing psyllium to address this concern lacks justification in this context.
E: Amitriptyline (Elavil) While amitriptyline can cause constipation, it is not the most likely reason for psyllium prescription when compared to the effects of spironolactone.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: Psyllium (Metamucil) would most likely be prescribed to a client experiencing constipation related to spironolactone (Aldactone).
Spironolactone can cause electrolyte imbalances, leading to constipation. Psyllium, as a fiber supplement, aids in increasing stool bulk and relieving constipation, making it a suitable choice in this scenario.
B: Clonidine (Catapres) Clonidine primarily affects blood pressure and does not typically contribute to constipation, making psyllium less relevant for managing side effects associated with this medication.
C: Enalapril (Vasotec) Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, does not commonly induce constipation. Therefore, psyllium's use would not be warranted for clients taking this medication.
D: Fexofenadine (Allegra) Fexofenadine, an antihistamine, is not associated with constipation as a side effect. Consequently, prescribing psyllium to address this concern lacks justification in this context.
E: Amitriptyline (Elavil) While amitriptyline can cause constipation, it is not the most likely reason for psyllium prescription when compared to the effects of spironolactone.
Question 18
Multiple Choice
A client is prescribed a laxative. Which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching plan for the client about possible adverse reactions?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A,B,C,E
Rationale
Nausea, perianal irritation, bloating, and cramps are common adverse reactions associated with laxative use. Understanding these potential side effects is crucial for clients to manage expectations and seek timely medical advice if symptoms arise. Clients should be aware of how these reactions might impact their overall comfort and health during laxative treatment.
D: Constipation Frequent laxative use can ironically lead to constipation, yet this option does not align with immediate adverse reactions, making it less relevant in the context of teaching.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,E
Rationale: Nausea, perianal irritation, bloating, and cramps are common adverse reactions associated with laxative use. Understanding these potential side effects is crucial for clients to manage expectations and seek timely medical advice if symptoms arise. Clients should be aware of how these reactions might impact their overall comfort and health during laxative treatment.
D: Constipation Frequent laxative use can ironically lead to constipation, yet this option does not align with immediate adverse reactions, making it less relevant in the context of teaching.
Question 19
Regular
A physician has prescribed simethicone to a client with postoperative abdominal distention. After administering the drug, the nurse would assess the client for the possibility of which of the following?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A
Rationale
Simethicone is used to alleviate gas-related discomfort, which can lead to heartburn as a side effect. Following administration, assessing for heartburn is important to ensure the patient's comfort and identify any adverse reactions.
B: Vomiting Simethicone primarily targets gas relief and does not typically induce vomiting, making this option less relevant to the drug's intended effects.
C: Fainting Simethicone does not have associations with causing fainting, as it primarily acts on gas in the gastrointestinal tract and does not affect blood pressure or circulation.
D: Nausea While nausea can occur in some patients, simethicone’s main purpose is to relieve gas, not to provoke feelings of nausea, making this choice less likely.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Simethicone is used to alleviate gas-related discomfort, which can lead to heartburn as a side effect. Following administration, assessing for heartburn is important to ensure the patient's comfort and identify any adverse reactions.
B: Vomiting Simethicone primarily targets gas relief and does not typically induce vomiting, making this option less relevant to the drug's intended effects.
C: Fainting Simethicone does not have associations with causing fainting, as it primarily acts on gas in the gastrointestinal tract and does not affect blood pressure or circulation.
D: Nausea While nausea can occur in some patients, simethicone’s main purpose is to relieve gas, not to provoke feelings of nausea, making this choice less likely.
Question 20
Regular
A nurse is caring for a client with irritable bowel syndrome. The physician has prescribed polycarbophil to the client. The nurse would administer this drug cautiously if the client's history revealed which of the following?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: C
Rationale
C: Rectal bleeding can indicate underlying issues that may worsen with polycarbophil, as this medication can cause constipation and potentially exacerbate bleeding if the intestines are already compromised.
A: Abdominal pain typically occurs with irritable bowel syndrome, but it does not directly relate to the administration of polycarbophil, which primarily addresses stool consistency rather than pain management.
B: Pseudomembranous colitis involves severe gastrointestinal distress and can be aggravated by medications like polycarbophil, which might further complicate the intestinal environment rather than providing relief.
D: Intestinal obstruction requires immediate attention, and administering polycarbophil could worsen the situation by increasing stool bulk, leading to further complications and potential perforation risks.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: C: Rectal bleeding can indicate underlying issues that may worsen with polycarbophil, as this medication can cause constipation and potentially exacerbate bleeding if the intestines are already compromised.
A: Abdominal pain typically occurs with irritable bowel syndrome, but it does not directly relate to the administration of polycarbophil, which primarily addresses stool consistency rather than pain management.
B: Pseudomembranous colitis involves severe gastrointestinal distress and can be aggravated by medications like polycarbophil, which might further complicate the intestinal environment rather than providing relief.
D: Intestinal obstruction requires immediate attention, and administering polycarbophil could worsen the situation by increasing stool bulk, leading to further complications and potential perforation risks.
Question 21
Regular
A physician has prescribed difenoxin with atropine to a client with acute diarrhea. The client informs the nurse that he is also taking MAOI antidepressants. The nurse would assess the client for which of the following that might result from the interaction of the two drugs?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: B
Rationale
B: Increased risk of hypertensive crisis. The combination of difenoxin with atropine and MAOIs can lead to excessive norepinephrine levels, significantly raising the potential for hypertensive crises, which are life-threatening.
A: Decreased effect of difenoxin. Difenoxin's efficacy isn't diminished by MAOIs; rather, the interaction primarily heightens the risk of serious cardiovascular events instead of reducing medication effectiveness.
C: Increased cholinergic blocking adverse reactions. While atropine does possess anticholinergic properties, the primary concern with MAOIs is cardiovascular reactions rather than exacerbated cholinergic side effects from this drug combination.
D: Increased risk of CNS depression. Difenoxin and atropine do not typically heighten central nervous system effects, and the interaction with MAOIs is more closely associated with hypertensive responses than CNS depression.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B: Increased risk of hypertensive crisis. The combination of difenoxin with atropine and MAOIs can lead to excessive norepinephrine levels, significantly raising the potential for hypertensive crises, which are life-threatening.
A: Decreased effect of difenoxin. Difenoxin's efficacy isn't diminished by MAOIs; rather, the interaction primarily heightens the risk of serious cardiovascular events instead of reducing medication effectiveness.
C: Increased cholinergic blocking adverse reactions. While atropine does possess anticholinergic properties, the primary concern with MAOIs is cardiovascular reactions rather than exacerbated cholinergic side effects from this drug combination.
D: Increased risk of CNS depression. Difenoxin and atropine do not typically heighten central nervous system effects, and the interaction with MAOIs is more closely associated with hypertensive responses than CNS depression.
Question 22
Regular
A physician has prescribed bisacodyl to a client with constipation. The client complains of epigastric pain and a burning sensation after taking the drug. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: D
Rationale
D: Avoid milk before taking the drug.
Consuming milk may interfere with bisacodyl's effectiveness, as dairy products can bind to the medication, potentially reducing its ability to relieve constipation. This instruction helps optimize the drug's action and minimize side effects.
A: Immediately stop taking the drug.
Abrupt cessation may hinder treatment progress and exacerbate constipation symptoms, preventing the client from experiencing the full benefits of bisacodyl.
B: Take antacids between meals.
Antacids can alter the stomach's acidity, impacting bisacodyl's efficacy. This timing could lead to reduced therapeutic outcomes and increase discomfort for the client.
C: Take the drug in powdered form.
Bisacodyl is typically administered in tablet or suppository form. Changing it to powdered form could lead to improper dosing and ineffective treatment for constipation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: D: Avoid milk before taking the drug.
Consuming milk may interfere with bisacodyl's effectiveness, as dairy products can bind to the medication, potentially reducing its ability to relieve constipation. This instruction helps optimize the drug's action and minimize side effects.
A: Immediately stop taking the drug.
Abrupt cessation may hinder treatment progress and exacerbate constipation symptoms, preventing the client from experiencing the full benefits of bisacodyl.
B: Take antacids between meals.
Antacids can alter the stomach's acidity, impacting bisacodyl's efficacy. This timing could lead to reduced therapeutic outcomes and increase discomfort for the client.
C: Take the drug in powdered form.
Bisacodyl is typically administered in tablet or suppository form. Changing it to powdered form could lead to improper dosing and ineffective treatment for constipation.
Question 23
Regular
A nurse is caring for a client with pseudomembranous colitis. The physician has prescribed loperamide. Which of the following would the nurse identify as indicative of effectiveness?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: C
Rationale
Diarrhea is resolved.
The resolution of diarrhea indicates that loperamide is effectively managing the symptoms of pseudomembranous colitis, suggesting a decrease in intestinal motility and improvement in the patient's condition, leading to better overall health.
A: Elevation in temperature is noted. A rising temperature may indicate ongoing infection or inflammation, which does not demonstrate the therapeutic effectiveness of loperamide for treating gastrointestinal symptoms.
B: Rectal bleeding is noted. The presence of rectal bleeding signifies potential complications or exacerbation of the underlying condition, indicating that loperamide is not effectively controlling the patient's gastrointestinal issues.
D: Nausea and vomiting are resolved. While alleviating nausea and vomiting is important, these symptoms do not directly correlate with the effectiveness of loperamide in managing diarrhea associated with pseudomembranous colitis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diarrhea is resolved.
The resolution of diarrhea indicates that loperamide is effectively managing the symptoms of pseudomembranous colitis, suggesting a decrease in intestinal motility and improvement in the patient's condition, leading to better overall health.
A: Elevation in temperature is noted. A rising temperature may indicate ongoing infection or inflammation, which does not demonstrate the therapeutic effectiveness of loperamide for treating gastrointestinal symptoms.
B: Rectal bleeding is noted. The presence of rectal bleeding signifies potential complications or exacerbation of the underlying condition, indicating that loperamide is not effectively controlling the patient's gastrointestinal issues.
D: Nausea and vomiting are resolved. While alleviating nausea and vomiting is important, these symptoms do not directly correlate with the effectiveness of loperamide in managing diarrhea associated with pseudomembranous colitis.
Question 24
Regular
The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed mesalamine. The client is also taking warfarin. Which of the following interactions should the nurse monitor the client for when he is administered mesalamine with warfarin?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: C
Rationale
C: Increased risk of bleeding. Mesalamine can affect platelet function and coagulation pathways, increasing the potential for bleeding when administered alongside warfarin, which is an anticoagulant that also affects clotting.
A: Increased risk of immunosuppression. Mesalamine does not have significant immunosuppressive effects, and its mechanism does not directly compromise the immune system in conjunction with warfarin.
B: Increased blood glucose level. Mesalamine does not significantly influence blood glucose levels, and its primary use is for inflammatory bowel diseases rather than metabolic control.
D: Increased risk of CNS depression. Mesalamine does not typically cause central nervous system depression, and its pharmacological profile does not interact with CNS depressants like warfarin to enhance such effects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: C: Increased risk of bleeding. Mesalamine can affect platelet function and coagulation pathways, increasing the potential for bleeding when administered alongside warfarin, which is an anticoagulant that also affects clotting.
A: Increased risk of immunosuppression. Mesalamine does not have significant immunosuppressive effects, and its mechanism does not directly compromise the immune system in conjunction with warfarin.
B: Increased blood glucose level. Mesalamine does not significantly influence blood glucose levels, and its primary use is for inflammatory bowel diseases rather than metabolic control.
D: Increased risk of CNS depression. Mesalamine does not typically cause central nervous system depression, and its pharmacological profile does not interact with CNS depressants like warfarin to enhance such effects.
Question 25
Regular
A nurse is caring for a client with constipation. The physician prescribes cascara sagrada to the client. Which of the following effects should the nurse monitor for in the client after administration of the drug?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: B
Rationale
Brownish discoloration of urine. Cascara sagrada can lead to changes in urine color, primarily due to its anthraquinone compounds, which may result in a reddish-brown hue after administration, requiring monitoring.
A: Sudden increase in weight. A significant weight gain is not a typical effect of cascara sagrada and does not relate to its intended use or side effects.
C: Reduced sperm count. Cascara sagrada is not associated with any effects on sperm production or male reproductive health, making this option irrelevant to the drug's actions.
D: Abdominal pain and cramping. While abdominal discomfort can occur with laxatives, it is not a primary effect of cascara sagrada, which typically aims to relieve constipation without severe cramping.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Brownish discoloration of urine. Cascara sagrada can lead to changes in urine color, primarily due to its anthraquinone compounds, which may result in a reddish-brown hue after administration, requiring monitoring.
A: Sudden increase in weight. A significant weight gain is not a typical effect of cascara sagrada and does not relate to its intended use or side effects.
C: Reduced sperm count. Cascara sagrada is not associated with any effects on sperm production or male reproductive health, making this option irrelevant to the drug's actions.
D: Abdominal pain and cramping. While abdominal discomfort can occur with laxatives, it is not a primary effect of cascara sagrada, which typically aims to relieve constipation without severe cramping.
Question 26
Regular
A nurse is caring for a client with intestinal stenosis who has been prescribed psyllium. During the course of the treatment, the client shows the signs of colon obstruction. What intervention should the nurse perform to avoid the occurrence of colon obstruction?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: A
Rationale
Administer the drug with adequate fluid intake. Adequate fluid intake is essential when using psyllium, as it helps to soften the stool and facilitate bowel movements, reducing the risk of colon obstruction in clients with intestinal stenosis.
B: Give mineral oil to the client after meals. Mineral oil can interfere with nutrient absorption and may not effectively address the complications associated with psyllium use in this context.
C: Administer the drug after chilling it. Chilling the drug does not enhance its therapeutic effect or mitigate the risk of colon obstruction, rendering this option ineffective for the client's needs.
D: Provide foods high in bulk or roughage. While high-fiber foods are generally beneficial, they can exacerbate obstruction risks in clients with stenosis if not accompanied by sufficient fluid intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administer the drug with adequate fluid intake. Adequate fluid intake is essential when using psyllium, as it helps to soften the stool and facilitate bowel movements, reducing the risk of colon obstruction in clients with intestinal stenosis.
B: Give mineral oil to the client after meals. Mineral oil can interfere with nutrient absorption and may not effectively address the complications associated with psyllium use in this context.
C: Administer the drug after chilling it. Chilling the drug does not enhance its therapeutic effect or mitigate the risk of colon obstruction, rendering this option ineffective for the client's needs.
D: Provide foods high in bulk or roughage. While high-fiber foods are generally beneficial, they can exacerbate obstruction risks in clients with stenosis if not accompanied by sufficient fluid intake.
Question 27
Regular
A client has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. The physician has prescribed sulfasalazine to the client. Based on the nurse's understanding of this condition, the nurse would monitor the client for which of the following?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: C
Rationale
Severe blood- and mucus-filled diarrhea. This symptom is characteristic of ulcerative colitis, indicating active inflammation in the colon, which sulfasalazine aims to manage by reducing inflammation and controlling symptoms.
A: Mild symptoms of contact dermatitis. While sulfasalazine can cause skin reactions, contact dermatitis is not a primary concern with ulcerative colitis, making it less relevant for monitoring in this context.
B: Abdominal pain and distention. Though abdominal discomfort can occur, it is not as definitive or urgent a symptom of ulcerative colitis compared to severe diarrhea, which indicates a flare-up.
D: Frequent loose or watery stools. This symptom might occur, but it lacks the severity and specificity associated with ulcerative colitis, where bloody and mucus-filled diarrhea is a more critical indicator of exacerbation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe blood- and mucus-filled diarrhea. This symptom is characteristic of ulcerative colitis, indicating active inflammation in the colon, which sulfasalazine aims to manage by reducing inflammation and controlling symptoms.
A: Mild symptoms of contact dermatitis. While sulfasalazine can cause skin reactions, contact dermatitis is not a primary concern with ulcerative colitis, making it less relevant for monitoring in this context.
B: Abdominal pain and distention. Though abdominal discomfort can occur, it is not as definitive or urgent a symptom of ulcerative colitis compared to severe diarrhea, which indicates a flare-up.
D: Frequent loose or watery stools. This symptom might occur, but it lacks the severity and specificity associated with ulcerative colitis, where bloody and mucus-filled diarrhea is a more critical indicator of exacerbation.
Question 28
Regular
A nurse is caring for a client receiving bismuth subsalicylate for the relief of diarrhea. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform to promote an optimal response to the prescribed drug therapy?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: B
Rationale
Administer the drug after each loose bowel movement. This approach ensures that bismuth subsalicylate can effectively coat the gastrointestinal lining and reduce the frequency of diarrhea, promoting optimal therapeutic outcomes.
A: Thoroughly mix and stir the drug before administering. Mixing may not enhance the drug's efficacy, as bismuth subsalicylate is often already in a suitable formulation for effective action.
C: Ensure the client receives adequate sunlight. Sunlight exposure does not relate to the effectiveness of bismuth subsalicylate and does not influence the treatment of diarrhea.
D: Encourage the client to lightly exercise on a daily basis. Exercise may not be beneficial while experiencing diarrhea, as it could exacerbate symptoms and lead to discomfort.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administer the drug after each loose bowel movement. This approach ensures that bismuth subsalicylate can effectively coat the gastrointestinal lining and reduce the frequency of diarrhea, promoting optimal therapeutic outcomes.
A: Thoroughly mix and stir the drug before administering. Mixing may not enhance the drug's efficacy, as bismuth subsalicylate is often already in a suitable formulation for effective action.
C: Ensure the client receives adequate sunlight. Sunlight exposure does not relate to the effectiveness of bismuth subsalicylate and does not influence the treatment of diarrhea.
D: Encourage the client to lightly exercise on a daily basis. Exercise may not be beneficial while experiencing diarrhea, as it could exacerbate symptoms and lead to discomfort.
Question 29
Regular
During a routine clinic visit, a client tells the nurse that he is taking an over-the-counter antidiarrheal agent for treatment of diarrhea. The nurse reviews the drug information with the client. Afterward, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the client states that he will contact his primary health care provider if the diarrhea is not resolved within which time frame?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: B
Rationale
B: The client should contact the primary health care provider if diarrhea persists beyond 48 hours, as this timeframe is generally considered appropriate for evaluating the effectiveness of over-the-counter antidiarrheal medications and determining if further medical intervention is necessary.
A: 24 hours. Consulting a health care provider after just 24 hours may be premature, as many cases of diarrhea can resolve naturally within this period without requiring medical attention.
C: 72 hours. Waiting for 72 hours to seek help could delay necessary treatment, as persistent diarrhea beyond 48 hours typically warrants an assessment to prevent complications or dehydration.
D: 96 hours. A timeframe of 96 hours significantly exceeds the standard recommendation, potentially allowing for worsening symptoms or underlying conditions to go unaddressed for too long.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B: The client should contact the primary health care provider if diarrhea persists beyond 48 hours, as this timeframe is generally considered appropriate for evaluating the effectiveness of over-the-counter antidiarrheal medications and determining if further medical intervention is necessary.
A: 24 hours. Consulting a health care provider after just 24 hours may be premature, as many cases of diarrhea can resolve naturally within this period without requiring medical attention.
C: 72 hours. Waiting for 72 hours to seek help could delay necessary treatment, as persistent diarrhea beyond 48 hours typically warrants an assessment to prevent complications or dehydration.
D: 96 hours. A timeframe of 96 hours significantly exceeds the standard recommendation, potentially allowing for worsening symptoms or underlying conditions to go unaddressed for too long.
Question 30
Regular
A client is receiving a bowel evacuant in preparation for a colonoscopy. The client tells the nurse that he has been 'going to the bathroom about every 30 to 45 minutes' since he started taking the drug and his stools are 'like water.' He reports that he is thirsty and his mouth feels dry. Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse most likely identify?
Correct!
Incorrect
The correct answer is: C
Rationale
C: Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume. The client’s frequent watery stools and symptoms of thirst and dry mouth indicate a significant loss of fluid, which poses a risk for dehydration and imbalanced fluid volume.
A: Risk for Infection. The current situation does not involve any signs of infection, such as fever or abnormal lab results, making this diagnosis irrelevant to the client's symptoms.
B: Risk for Injury. There are no indications of physical hazards or falls mentioned, and the client’s primary concern revolves around fluid loss rather than any potential injuries.
D: Deficient Knowledge. The client demonstrates awareness of the effects of the bowel evacuant, as evidenced by his description of symptoms, indicating a lack of knowledge is not the primary issue.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: C: Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume. The client’s frequent watery stools and symptoms of thirst and dry mouth indicate a significant loss of fluid, which poses a risk for dehydration and imbalanced fluid volume.
A: Risk for Infection. The current situation does not involve any signs of infection, such as fever or abnormal lab results, making this diagnosis irrelevant to the client's symptoms.
B: Risk for Injury. There are no indications of physical hazards or falls mentioned, and the client’s primary concern revolves around fluid loss rather than any potential injuries.
D: Deficient Knowledge. The client demonstrates awareness of the effects of the bowel evacuant, as evidenced by his description of symptoms, indicating a lack of knowledge is not the primary issue.
Quiz Complete!
Lower Gastrointestinal System Drugs
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